In the situation where a woman can no longer remain in the marriage of her husband and all attempts to save the marriage have failed, then the ideal solution would be for her to obtain a divorce from the husband.
Question: There is a Muslim sister who was married to a brother. At the time, they were both not praying, fasting or anything. She was not wearing hijab either. Then she changed. She started to wear the hijaab, pray, fast, and has now adopted the niqaab and is seeking knowledge as well as the principal advisor of an Islamic school.
Her husband is still not praying nor does he intend to as he has told her. She and he have had many arguments and he still will not pray. The mother was commanded by the husband on many occasions to take of the niqaab when she is with him in public and at one moment in time, he ripped it from her face and drug her inside, so that she could not leave the house to do her principal duties at the Islamic school.
This has been going on for quite a few years. Now the sister wants a divorce. He does not, so then she decided to seek khula. But I wanted to know, due to the fact that she has asked me, how is the khula procedure in the Hanafi school as well as if the following make any difference.
1 He has not paid her the mahr that he promised her on the marriage day.
2 There are four children involved
3 Does an imam have to be involved to initiate the khula from one side if the husband says that he does not want to?
4 Must the wife pay the husband and how is this affected if he has not given her the mahr? How would she give him half the value or the value of the mahr that he gave her when he has not given her the mahr as of yet?
5 Is she to wait 1 cycle or two in the Hanafi School upon completing the khula?
6 She has explained that every time that she sees him she feels sick and she has prayed istikhaara numerous times and has no doubt in her heart that she does not want to be married to him any longer.
7 There has been and has recently been physical violence against her by the husband as well as in front of the children.
Answer: In the Name of Allah, Most Compassionate, Most Merciful,
In the situation where a woman can no longer remain in the marriage of her husband and all attempts to save the marriage have failed, then the ideal solution would be for her to obtain a divorce from the husband. The husband, seeing that the marriage is futile and there is no hope of reconcilement, should also issue one divorce according to the prescribed method in Shariah.
However, in the case where the husband refuses to issue a divorce, the wife may persuade the husband to enter into an agreement of Khul' (a release for payment from the wife). The wife may also opt to forgive the husband from paying her dowry (mahr).
Khul' is an Arabic term that literally means 'to take out' and 'remove'. The Arabs say: "Khala'tu al-libas" (I took off my cloths). Similarly, Allah Almighty said to Sayyiduna Musa (Peace be upon him) when he went to receive the sacred law:
"Verily I am your lord! Therefore, take off (fakhla') your shoes." (Surah Ta Ha, 12)
The lexical definition of Khul' as explained by the famous Hanafi Mujtahid, Ibn Humam is as follows:
"To remove the union of marriage in exchange of a financial settlement with the words of Khul." (Ibn Humam, Fath al-Qadir, 3/1999)
Similar to other agreements and transactions, an agreement on Khul' will also come into effect by acceptance and offer. (al-Kasani, Bada'i al- Sana'i, 3/145 & Radd al-Muhtar, 2/606)
The couple can normally agree upon any financial arrangement they desire. However, the Fuqaha state that, if the husband was at fault and it was his wrongdoings that resulted in the failure of their marriage, then it is impermissible for him to demand a financial payment in return for a divorce. He should divorce the wife without demanding anything in return.
Allah Most High says:
"But if you decide to take one wife in place of another, even if you had given the latter a whole treasure for dower, take not the least bit of it back. Would you take it by slander and a manifest wrong? And how could you take it when you have gone into each other, and We have taken from you a solemn covenant?" (Surah al-Nisa, 20-21)
Due to the above verse of the Qur'an, the Fuqaha have declared the taking of anything in return as a major sin if the husband was at fault.
However, if the husband was not at fault, but the wife for some reason or another wishes to end the marriage, then it is permissible for the husband to demand and receive some financial payment. It would be superior for him not to take more than the actual stipulated dowry. However, it would be permissible for them to agree on any amount. (See: Bada'i al-Sana'i, 3/150 & Bahr al-Ra'iq, 4/83)
Allah Most High says:
"It is unlawful for you (men), to take back (dowry, etc...) from your wives, except when both parties fear that they would be unable to keep the limits ordained by Allah. If you (judges) do indeed fear that they would be unable to keep the limits ordained by Allah, there is no blame on either of them if she gives something for her freedom." (Surah al-Baqarah, 229)
According to the Majority of Jurists (jumhur), a Khula' agreement can be carried out without having to go to an Islamic court. Merely, the consent of both parties is sufficient. (See: al-Sarakhsi, al-Mabsut, 6/173)
A Khul' is considered an irrevocable divorce and a finalized cancellation of marriage (ba'in), differing from a threefold divorce by the fact that they may remarry in such a case without her marrying another husband first.
If they did remarry, the husband will only remain the owner of two more divorces. Meaning, if he further issued two more divorces, it will total to three, thus he will not be able to take her back until she marries another man. (See: al-Mabsut, 6/173)
The waiting period (idda) for the woman will be similar to that of a woman who was given an irrevocable divorce (ba'in) which is three menstrual cycles. The husband can not take her back within or after the waiting period without her consent (by contracting a new agreement of marriage).
Finally, it should also be remembered that a Khul' agreement can only be carried out with the consent of the husband. The wife does not have the jurisdiction to enforce Khul' without the consent of her husband. This is an agreed upon ruling in all of the four Sunni schools of Islamic law.
The great Hanafi jurist, Imam al-Sarakhsi says:
"An agreement of Khul' is permissible with or without the presence of a judge, as it is a contract that is based on mutual agreement." (al-Mabsut, 6/173)
The same has also been mentioned in Radd al-Muhtar, al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya and other major works.
With the above discussion, I sincerely hope all your queries with regards to Khul' have been answered.
And Allah Knows Best
[Mufti] Muhammad ibn Adam
Leicester , UK
Question: Is it valid for a woman to put as a stipulation in a written Islamic contract that she will have the open right to divorce, as opposed to her naming the specific conditions under which this right will be carried out?
Also the woman's father is representing the bride at the nikah ceremony, she will not actually be present during the nikah; how will this contract be signed and presented in her absence?
Answer: In the Name of Allah, Most Compassionate, Most Merciful,
According to Shariah, the right to divorce belongs primarily to the husband and not the wife. There are many reasons and wisdoms behind this ruling, which have been explained in detail in an earlier post.
However, although the power to issue a divorce belongs in principle to the husband, he may delegate this power to his wife or a third party, with or without stipulating conditions. Once this power is delegated, it can not be revoked or withdrawn. This is known in the Fiqh terminology as "Tafwid".
This is based upon the incident where the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) gave his wives the option to remain in his marriage or be divorced. Allah Most High said to the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace):
"O Prophet! Say to your wives: "If it be that you desire the life of this world, and its glitter, then come! I will provide for your enjoyment and set you free in a handsome manner. But if you seek Allah and His Messenger, and the Home of the Hereafter, verily Allah has prepared for the well-doers amongst you a great reward." (Surah al-Ahzab, 28)
The Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) deserted his wives for a period of around one month, after which the above verse was revealed.
Sayyida A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) narrates: "When the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) was commanded to give an option (of divorce) to his wives, he started with me saying: "I am going to mention to you a matter in which you should not (decide) hastily until you have consulted your parents." She (A'isha) said that he already knew that my parents would never instruct me to seek separation from him. She said: "Then he said: Allah, the Exalted and Glorious, said: "O Prophet, say to your wives: If it be that you desire the life of this World, and its glitter, then come! I will provide for your enjoyment and set you free in a handsome manner. But if you seek Allah and His Messenger, and the Home of the Hereafter, verily Allah has prepared for the well-doers amongst you a great reward." Sayyida A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) says that I said to the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace): "About this should I consult my parents, for I desire Allah and His Messenger and the abode of the Hereafter?" She (A'isha) said: "Then all the wives of the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) did as I had done." (Sahih Muslim, no. 1475)
Sayyida A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) also narrates that the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) gave us the option (m: to remain with him or to be divorced), so we chose (and preferred) Allah and His Messenger. Giving us that option was not regarded as a divorce." (Sahih al-Bukhari, no. 4962)
Imam al-Sarakhsi (Allah have mercy on him) states:
"If a man delegates the right to divorce to his wife, then this is similar to giving an option (khiyar) in trade, except that this is completely valid and logical, for the husband is the owner of issuing the divorce, thus he is in a position of delegating something that he owns. Hence, it will be binding, in that the husband will not have the right to revoke this delegation." (al-Mabsut, 7/221)
The Companions (Sahaba, Allah be pleased with them all) also unanimously agreed upon the validity of delegating the right to divorce to the wife. (See: al-Mawsili, al-Ikhtiyar li ta'lil al-Mukhtar, 2/166 & Zaylai'i, Nab al-Raya, 3/229)
There are certain rules and regulations with regards to this delegation that need to be understood properly:
1 When the husband delegates the right to divorce to the wife, she will only have this right in the session (majlis) that she is in. If she did not exercise her right, then this right will go in vain. However, if the husband delegates this right for a specific period (e.g. 5 years) or permanently, then she will have this right accordingly. (Radd al-Muhtar & al-Ikhtiyar)
2 The wife will only have a right to divorce herself according to what was delegated to her. If the husband delegated to her the right to divorce herself once (and not two or three times), or he delegated the right to divorce herself irrevocably, then she will have this right accordingly. She will only be allowed to utilize this right in a manner it was delegated to her. (Radd al-Muhtar)
3 If the husband gave his wife the right to divorce herself a specific number of divorces, then she will not have a right to divorce herself more than the number of divorces that were delegated to her.
4Once the husband delegates this right to his wife, he can not overturn or revoke it. (Durr al-Mukhtar)
5 If the right to divorce was delegated for a specific period of time and the wife did not utilize this right in that period, then upon the termination of this period, the right will also no longer remain. (al-Ikhtiyar)
6 By delegating the right to divorce, the husband still has a right to divorce his wife. Delegation of this right does not imply that the husband no longer has a right to issue a divorce. (al-Ikhtiyar)
7 If the wife rejects accepting this right of divorcing herself, then if the delegation was permanent, her rejection will be of no consequence, in that she will still have this right permanently despite rejecting the offer. However, if this delegation was not permanent, then by rejection, the right to divorce will terminate. (al-Ikhtiyar)
There are different stages and times when the man delegates the right to divorce to the woman. In summary, there are three situations here:
a If the delegation (tafwid) took place after the spouses had entered into wedlock, then this, without doubt, can be done. However, the husband here will be free to accept this, as he is already in the marriage.
b The second situation is when this delegation (tafwid) takes place at the time of contracting the marriage.
This is also permissible and valid, provided one condition is met, which is that the offer of marriage is initiated by the woman coupled with the demand for Tafwid, and the man accepts this. If the opposite takes place, it will be void.
Imam al-Haskafi (Allah have mercy on him) states:
"If the man married her on condition that she will have the right to divorce herself, then this will be valid."
Allama Ibn Abidin (Allah have mercy no him) commentates on this by saying:
"(Imam al-Haskafi's statement "this will be valid"), this is subject to the condition that the woman initiates the contract of marriage with her offer by saying: "I marry myself to you on the condition that I will have the right to divorce myself whenever I wish" and the husband says: "I accept this". However, if the husband initiated the contract of marriage, she will not have a right to divorce herself, as mentioned in al-Bahr." (Radd al-Muhtar ala al-Durr, 3/329)
Thus, if the woman (or her representative) initiated the marriage contract by the offer (ijab) and asked for the right to divorce, then she will be entitled to this right, and whenever she divorces herself, it will be valid.
c The third stage of Tafwid is when it takes place before the actual contract of marriage. In other words, the woman demands the right to divorce herself if they are to get married.
This is also permissible and valid, but also subject to one condition, that the husband attributes the Tafwid to the marriage. Meaning he says: "If I marry you, then you have the right to issue one irrevocable divorce upon yourself." However, if the man did not attribute this to the marriage, it will be void.
It is stated in Durr al-Mukhtar:
"The condition of its validity is having ownership (m: by actual marriage) or referring it to the marriage...such as he says: "If I marry you, then you are divorced (m: or you have the right to divorce yourself)." (See: Radd al-Muhtar ala al-Durr al-Mukhtar, 3/344 & al-Ikhtiyar, 2/ 170)
As far as your second question is concerned, the woman can appoint her father as her representative (wakil) to contract the marriage on her behalf. It is not necessary for the woman to be present in the session of the marriage contract. Her representative will have the same authority as she herself has.
And Allah Knows Best
[Mufti] Muhammad ibn Adam
Leicester , UK